We are not sure why defendant took title subject to plaintiff's lien.  Plaintiff's predecessor in interest, Oswald, foreclosed on its lien, bid in at the foreclosure sale, and thereafter sold to plaintiff.  Given that defendant had lost his deed of trust and that his execution lien was subordinate to Oswald's lien, why didn't the foreclosure of Oswald's lien completely wipe out the title that defendant obtained from purchasing at the execution sale.  Was there a statutory right to redeem from foreclosure of Oswald's statutory lien?